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  #1  
Unread 01-12-2014, 07:25 PM
waxer waxer is offline
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Default Connection between upper/lower workouts

Suppose I make two experiments for muscle gains:

Experiment 1:
Take person X and only train upper body.

Experiment 2:
Take person Y and train upper and lower body.

Suppose in both experiments training and diet is optimal. (Optimal diet in Exp 1 would be quite tricky, since most references about nutrition needs assume all major muscles in the body are trained... hope the point is clear)

Two questions:
a) Does Y gained more muscle mass in upper body (or lower body) than person X?.
What I'm asking is: Does involving all muscles in training generate more hormonal response to muscle anabolism in a 'higher rate than linear'? (The question is too vague and I hope the point is clear).

b) In Exp 1, does not training lower body set a lower limit on muscle development in upper body compared to Exp 2? (due to the disproportion maybe not nice to nature in humans).

Yeah yeah, I hope not getting answers like:
- Hey bro, WTF about not training legs... this question makes no sense!!
Well.. if it doesn't makes enough sense, I'd prefer this question to be closed rather than getting a topic full of those answers.

Thanks

Last edited by waxer : 01-12-2014 at 07:29 PM.
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  #2  
Unread 01-12-2014, 08:56 PM
Primalkid Primalkid is offline
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Hormonal response to exercise doesn't matter in the long-term. Person Y will gain strength/mass in the legs, and both will gain in the upperbody. (b) is incorrect.
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  #3  
Unread 01-12-2014, 09:09 PM
Donald Lee Donald Lee is offline
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There's an article about this on the Main Site, and there are 2-3 articles on this on the Exercise Biology site as well.
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  #4  
Unread 01-13-2014, 06:53 AM
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muki muki is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by waxer View Post
Suppose I make two experiments for muscle gains:

Experiment 1:
Take person X and only train upper body.

Experiment 2:
Take person Y and train upper and lower body.

Suppose in both experiments training and diet is optimal. (Optimal diet in Exp 1 would be quite tricky, since most references about nutrition needs assume all major muscles in the body are trained... hope the point is clear)

Two questions:
a) Does Y gained more muscle mass in upper body (or lower body) than person X?.
What I'm asking is: Does involving all muscles in training generate more hormonal response to muscle anabolism in a 'higher rate than linear'? (The question is too vague and I hope the point is clear).

b) In Exp 1, does not training lower body set a lower limit on muscle development in upper body compared to Exp 2? (due to the disproportion maybe not nice to nature in humans).

Yeah yeah, I hope not getting answers like:
- Hey bro, WTF about not training legs... this question makes no sense!!
Well.. if it doesn't makes enough sense, I'd prefer this question to be closed rather than getting a topic full of those answers.

Thanks
read this
http://forums.lylemcdonald.com/showthread.php?t=27087

To shortly answer your question - there is no such thing as "general anabolic state" which you seek to achieve by training your whole body. Or at least it is not what you are aiming it to be.
To make it simple...growth vise your upper body might only benefit by neglecting the lower body not vice versa. But neglecting any muscle group you risk symmetry issues and potential injuries in the long run...
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  #5  
Unread 01-13-2014, 10:49 AM
BigPecsPeter BigPecsPeter is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by muki View Post
read this
http://forums.lylemcdonald.com/showthread.php?t=27087

To shortly answer your question - there is no such thing as "general anabolic state" which you seek to achieve by training your whole body. Or at least it is not what you are aiming it to be.
To make it simple...growth vise your upper body might only benefit by neglecting the lower body not vice versa. But neglecting any muscle group you risk symmetry issues and potential injuries in the long run...
Yup.

What OP postulates here seems counter intuitive.

Now I'm no scientist, but I see folk who have neglected any semblance of proper leg training for their entire gym careers, and also guys who've been plowing away at squats and deadlifts for years. The most impressive biceps and pecs are usually to be found on people from among the former category. No conclusions - just sayin'.
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  #6  
Unread 01-13-2014, 10:57 AM
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lylemcd lylemcd is offline
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Two sentences that people will often express close together

1. YOu need to squat and dealift to get big
2. What's with all these guys with nothing but big chests and arms and no legs?

Not recognizing the contradiction.

There is no systemic growth stimulus, it's almost exclusively local. Want to get big X, train X.

I suspect the confound with the 'train squats/deads to get big overall' is this: people who go hard on squats and deadlifts tend to go hard on everything. It's the going hard that is relevant here, not the exercise choice.
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  #7  
Unread 01-13-2014, 12:05 PM
waxer waxer is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lylemcd View Post
There is no systemic growth stimulus, it's almost exclusively local. Want to get big X, train X.
Short and sweet.

Thanks all for the replies.
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